Chapter 5. Air Traffic Procedures | Section 2. Departure Procedures
5-2-1. Pre‐taxi Clearance Procedures
a. Certain airports have established pre‐taxi clearance programs whereby pilots of departing instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft may elect to receive their IFR clearances before they start taxiing for takeoff. The following provisions are included in such procedures:
1. Pilot participation is not mandatory.
2. Participating pilots call clearance delivery or ground control not more than 10 minutes before proposed taxi time.
3. IFR clearance (or delay information, if clearance cannot be obtained) is issued at the time of this initial call‐up.
4. When the IFR clearance is received on clearance delivery frequency, pilots call ground control when ready to taxi.
5. Normally, pilots need not inform ground control that they have received IFR clearance on clearance delivery frequency. Certain locations may, however, require that the pilot inform ground control of a portion of the routing or that the IFR clearance has been received.
6. If a pilot cannot establish contact on clearance delivery frequency or has not received an IFR clearance before ready to taxi, the pilot should contact ground control and inform the controller accordingly.
b. Locations where these procedures are in effect are indicated in the Airport/Facility Directory.
5-2-2. Pre-departure Clearance Procedures
a. Many airports in the National Airspace System are equipped with the Tower Data Link System (TDLS) that includes the Pre-departure Clearance (PDC) function. The PDC function automates the Clearance Delivery operations in the ATCT for participating users. The PDC function displays IFR clearances from the ARTCC to the ATCT. The Clearance Delivery controller in the ATCT can append local departure information and transmit the clearance via data link to participating airline/service provider computers. The airline/service provider will then deliver the clearance via the Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS) or a similar data link system or, for nondata link equipped aircraft, via a printer located at the departure gate. PDC reduces frequency congestion, controller workload and is intended to mitigate delivery/readback errors. Also, information from participating users indicates a reduction in pilot workload.
b. PDC is available only to participating aircraft that have subscribed to the service through an approved service provider.
c. Due to technical reasons, the following limitations currently exist in the PDC program:
1. Aircraft filing multiple flight plans are limited to one PDC clearance per departure airport within a 24-hour period. Additional clearances will be delivered verbally.
2. If the clearance is revised or modified prior to delivery, it will be rejected from PDC and the clearance will need to be delivered verbally.
d. No acknowledgment of receipt or readback is required for a PDC.
e. In all situations, the pilot is encouraged to contact clearance delivery if a question or concern exists regarding an automated clearance.
5-2-3. Taxi Clearance
Pilots on IFR flight plans should communicate with the control tower on the appropriate ground control or clearance delivery frequency, prior to starting engines, to receive engine start time, taxi and/or clearance information.
5-2-4. Line Up and Wait (LUAW)
a. Line up and wait is an air traffic control (ATC) procedure designed to position an aircraft onto the runway for an imminent departure. The ATC instruction “LINE UP AND WAIT” is used to instruct a pilot to taxi onto the departure runway and line up and wait.
Tower: “N234AR Runway 24L, line up and wait.”
b. This ATC instruction is not an authorization to takeoff. In instances where the pilot has been instructed to line up and wait and has been advised of a reason/condition (wake turbulence, traffic on an intersecting runway, etc.) or the reason/condition is clearly visible (another aircraft that has landed on or is taking off on the same runway), and the reason/condition is satisfied, the pilot should expect an imminent takeoff clearance, unless advised of a delay. If you are uncertain about any ATC instruction or clearance, contact ATC immediately.
c. If a takeoff clearance is not received within a reasonable amount of time after clearance to line up and wait, ATC should be contacted.
Aircraft: Cessna 234AR holding in position Runway 24L.
Aircraft: Cessna 234AR holding in position Runway 24L at Bravo.
FAA analysis of accidents and incidents involving aircraft holding in position indicate that two minutes or more elapsed between the time the instruction was issued to line up and wait and the resulting event (for example, land-over or go-around). Pilots should consider the length of time that they have been holding in position whenever they HAVE NOT been advised of any expected delay to determine when it is appropriate to query the controller.
Advisory Circulars 91-73A, Part 91 and Part 135 Single-Pilot Procedures during Taxi Operations, and 120-74A, Parts 91, 121, 125, and 135 Flightcrew Procedures during Taxi Operations
d. Situational awareness during line up and wait operations is enhanced by monitoring ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft. Pilots should listen carefully if another aircraft is on frequency that has a similar call sign and pay close attention to communications between ATC and other aircraft. If you are uncertain of an ATC instruction or clearance, query ATC immediately. Care should be taken to not inadvertently execute a clearance/instruction for another aircraft.
e. Pilots should be especially vigilant when conducting line up and wait operations at night or during reduced visibility conditions. They should scan the full length of the runway and look for aircraft on final approach or landing roll out when taxiing onto a runway. ATC should be contacted anytime there is a concern about a potential conflict.
f. When two or more runways are active, aircraft may be instructed to “LINE UP AND WAIT” on two or more runways. When multiple runway operations are being conducted, it is important to listen closely for your call sign and runway. Be alert for similar sounding call signs and acknowledge all instructions with your call sign. When you are holding in position and are not sure if the takeoff clearance was for you, ask ATC before you begin takeoff roll. ATC prefers that you confirm a takeoff clearance rather than mistake another aircraft's clearance for your own.
g. When ATC issues intersection “line up and wait” and takeoff clearances, the intersection designator will be used. If ATC omits the intersection designator, call ATC for clarification.
Aircraft: “Cherokee 234AR, Runway 24L at November 4, line up and wait.”
h. If landing traffic is a factor during line up and wait operations, ATC will inform the aircraft in position of the closest traffic that has requested a full-stop, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or an unrestricted low approach to the same runway. Pilots should take care to note the position of landing traffic. ATC will also advise the landing traffic when an aircraft is authorized to “line up and wait” on the same runway.
Tower: “Cessna 234AR, Runway 24L, line up and wait. Traffic a Boeing 737, six mile final.”
Tower: “Delta 1011, continue, traffic a Cessna 210 holding in position Runway 24L.”
ATC will normally withhold landing clearance to arrival aircraft when another aircraft is in position and holding on the runway.
i. Never land on a runway that is occupied by another aircraft, even if a landing clearance was issued. Do not hesitate to ask the controller about the traffic on the runway and be prepared to execute a go-around.
Always clarify any misunderstanding or confusion concerning ATC instructions or clearances. ATC should be advised immediately if there is any uncertainty about the ability to comply with any of their instructions.
5-2-5. Abbreviated IFR Departure Clearance (Cleared. . .as Filed) Procedures
a. ATC facilities will issue an abbreviated IFR departure clearance based on the ROUTE of flight filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the filed route can be approved with little or no revision. These abbreviated clearance procedures are based on the following conditions:
1. The aircraft is on the ground or it has departed visual flight rules (VFR) and the pilot is requesting IFR clearance while airborne.
2. That a pilot will not accept an abbreviated clearance if the route or destination of a flight plan filed with ATC has been changed by the pilot or the company or the operations officer before departure.
3. That it is the responsibility of the company or operations office to inform the pilot when they make a change to the filed flight plan.
4. That it is the responsibility of the pilot to inform ATC in the initial call‐up (for clearance) when the filed flight plan has been either:
(a) Amended, or
(b) Canceled and replaced with a new filed flight plan.
The facility issuing a clearance may not have received the revised route or the revised flight plan by the time a pilot requests clearance.
b. Controllers will issue a detailed clearance when they know that the original filed flight plan has been changed or when the pilot requests a full route clearance.
c. The clearance as issued will include the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
d. ATC procedures now require the controller to state the DP name, the current number and the DP transition name after the phrase “Cleared to (destination) airport” and prior to the phrase, “then as filed,” for ALL departure clearances when the DP or DP transition is to be flown. The procedures apply whether or not the DP is filed in the flight plan.
e. STARs, when filed in a flight plan, are considered a part of the filed route of flight and will not normally be stated in an initial departure clearance. If the ARTCC's jurisdictional airspace includes both the departure airport and the fix where a STAR or STAR transition begins, the STAR name, the current number and the STAR transition name MAY be stated in the initial clearance.
f. “Cleared to (destination) airport as filed” does NOT include the en route altitude filed in a flight plan. An en route altitude will be stated in the clearance or the pilot will be advised to expect an assigned or filed altitude within a given time frame or at a certain point after departure. This may be done verbally in the departure instructions or stated in the DP.
g. In both radar and nonradar environments, the controller will state “Cleared to (destination) airport as filed” or:
1. If a DP or DP transition is to be flown, specify the DP name, the current DP number, the DP transition name, the assigned altitude/flight level, and any additional instructions (departure control frequency, beacon code assignment, etc.) necessary to clear a departing aircraft via the DP or DP transition and the route filed.
National Seven Twenty cleared to Miami Airport Intercontinental one departure, Lake Charles transition then as filed, maintain Flight Level two seven zero.
2. When there is no DP or when the pilot cannot accept a DP, the controller will specify the assigned altitude or flight level, and any additional instructions necessary to clear a departing aircraft via an appropriate departure routing and the route filed.
A detailed departure route description or a radar vector may be used to achieve the desired departure routing.
3. If it is necessary to make a minor revision to the filed route, the controller will specify the assigned DP or DP transition (or departure routing), the revision to the filed route, the assigned altitude or flight level and any additional instructions necessary to clear a departing aircraft.
Jet Star One Four Two Four cleared to Atlanta Airport, South Boston two departure then as filed except change route to read South Boston Victor 20 Greensboro, maintain one seven thousand.
4. Additionally, in a nonradar environment, the controller will specify one or more fixes, as necessary, to identify the initial route of flight.
Cessna Three One Six Zero Foxtrot cleared to Charlotte Airport as filed via Brooke, maintain seven thousand.
h. To ensure success of the program, pilots should:
1. Avoid making changes to a filed flight plan just prior to departure.
2. State the following information in the initial call‐up to the facility when no change has been made to the filed flight plan: Aircraft call sign, location, type operation (IFR) and the name of the airport (or fix) to which you expect clearance.
“Washington clearance delivery (or ground control if appropriate) American Seventy Six at gate one, IFR Los Angeles.”
3. If the flight plan has been changed, state the change and request a full route clearance.
“Washington clearance delivery, American Seventy Six at gate one. IFR San Francisco. My flight plan route has been amended (or destination changed). Request full route clearance.”
4. Request verification or clarification from ATC if ANY portion of the clearance is not clearly understood.
5. When requesting clearance for the IFR portion of a VFR/IFR flight, request such clearance prior to the fix where IFR operation is proposed to commence in sufficient time to avoid delay. Use the following phraseology:
“Los Angeles center, Apache Six One Papa, VFR estimating Paso Robles VOR at three two, one thousand five hundred, request IFR to Bakersfield.”
5-2-6. Departure Restrictions, Clearance Void Times, Hold for Release, and Release Times
a. ATC may assign departure restrictions, clearance void times, hold for release, and release times, when necessary, to separate departures from other traffic or to restrict or regulate the departure flow.
1. Clearance Void Times. A pilot may receive a clearance, when operating from an airport without a control tower, which contains a provision for the clearance to be void if not airborne by a specific time. A pilot who does not depart prior to the clearance void time must advise ATC as soon as possible of their intentions. ATC will normally advise the pilot of the time allotted to notify ATC that the aircraft did not depart prior to the clearance void time. This time cannot exceed 30 minutes. Failure of an aircraft to contact ATC within 30 minutes after the clearance void time will result in the aircraft being considered overdue and search and rescue procedures initiated.
1. Other IFR traffic for the airport where the clearance is issued is suspended until the aircraft has contacted ATC or until 30 minutes after the clearance void time or 30 minutes after the clearance release time if no clearance void time is issued.
2. Pilots who depart at or after their clearance void time are not afforded IFR separation and may be in violation of 14 CFR Section 91.173 which requires that pilots receive an appropriate ATC clearance before operating IFR in controlled airspace.
Clearance void if not off by (clearance void time) and, if required, if not off by (clearance void time) advise (facility) not later than (time) of intentions.
2. Hold for Release. ATC may issue “hold for release” instructions in a clearance to delay an aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons (i.e., weather, traffic volume, etc.). When ATC states in the clearance, “hold for release,” the pilot may not depart utilizing that IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are issued by ATC. In addition, ATC will include departure delay information in conjunction with “hold for release” instructions. The ATC instruction, “hold for release,” applies to the IFR clearance and does not prevent the pilot from departing under VFR. However, prior to takeoff the pilot should cancel the IFR flight plan and operate the transponder on the appropriate VFR code. An IFR clearance may not be available after departure.
(Aircraft identification) cleared to (destination) airport as filed, maintain (altitude), and, if required (additional instructions or information), hold for release, expect (time in hours and/or minutes) departure delay.
3. Release Times. A “release time” is a departure restriction issued to a pilot by ATC, specifying the earliest time an aircraft may depart. ATC will use “release times” in conjunction with traffic management procedures and/or to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic.
(Aircraft identification) released for departure at (time in hours and/or minutes).
4. Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT). The EDCT is the runway release time assigned to an aircraft included in traffic management programs. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier than 5 minutes before, and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT.
b. If practical, pilots departing uncontrolled airports should obtain IFR clearances prior to becoming airborne when two‐way communications with the controlling ATC facility is available.
5-2-7. Departure Control
a. Departure Control is an approach control function responsible for ensuring separation between departures. So as to expedite the handling of departures, Departure Control may suggest a takeoff direction other than that which may normally have been used under VFR handling. Many times it is preferred to offer the pilot a runway that will require the fewest turns after takeoff to place the pilot on course or selected departure route as quickly as possible. At many locations particular attention is paid to the use of preferential runways for local noise abatement programs, and route departures away from congested areas.
b. Departure Control utilizing radar will normally clear aircraft out of the terminal area using DPs via radio navigation aids. When a departure is to be vectored immediately following takeoff, the pilot will be advised prior to takeoff of the initial heading to be flown but may not be advised of the purpose of the heading. Pilots operating in a radar environment are expected to associate departure headings with vectors to their planned route or flight. When given a vector taking the aircraft off a previously assigned nonradar route, the pilot will be advised briefly what the vector is to achieve. Thereafter, radar service will be provided until the aircraft has been reestablished “on‐course” using an appropriate navigation aid and the pilot has been advised of the aircraft's position or a handoff is made to another radar controller with further surveillance capabilities.
c. Controllers will inform pilots of the departure control frequencies and, if appropriate, the transponder code before takeoff. Pilots must ensure their transponder is adjusted to the “on” or normal operating position as soon as practical and remain on during all operations unless otherwise requested to change to “standby” by ATC. Pilots should not change to the departure control frequency until requested. Controllers may omit the departure control frequency if a DP has or will be assigned and the departure control frequency is published on the DP.
5-2-8. Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) - Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
Instrument departure procedures are preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) procedures which provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. There are two types of DPs, Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs), printed either textually or graphically, and Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs), always printed graphically. All DPs, either textual or graphic may be designed using either conventional or RNAV criteria. RNAV procedures will have RNAV printed in the title, e.g., SHEAD TWO DEPARTURE (RNAV). ODPs provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC. Graphic ODPs will have (OBSTACLE) printed in the procedure title, e.g., GEYSR THREE DEPARTURE (OBSTACLE), or, CROWN ONE DEPARTURE (RNAV) (OBSTACLE). Standard Instrument Departures are air traffic control (ATC) procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID. All DPs provide the pilot with a way to depart the airport and transition to the en route structure safely. Pilots operating under 14 CFR Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) and Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), when one is available. The following paragraphs will provide an overview of the DP program, why DPs are developed, what criteria are used, where to find them, how they are to be flown, and finally pilot and ATC responsibilities.
a. Why are DPs necessary? The primary reason is to provide obstacle clearance protection information to pilots. A secondary reason, at busier airports, is to increase efficiency and reduce communications and departure delays through the use of SIDs. When an instrument approach is initially developed for an airport, the need for DPs is assessed. The procedure designer conducts an obstacle analysis to support departure operations. If an aircraft may turn in any direction from a runway within the limits of the assessment area (see paragraph 5-2-8b3) and remain clear of obstacles, that runway passes what is called a diverse departure assessment and no ODP will be published. A SID may be published if needed for air traffic control purposes. However, if an obstacle penetrates what is called the 40:1 obstacle identification surface, then the procedure designer chooses whether to:
1. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient; or
2. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the obstacle(s); or
3. Design and publish a specific departure route; or
4. A combination or all of the above.
b. What criteria is used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
1. Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude. A greater climb gradient may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to achieve an ATC crossing restriction. If an initial turn higher than 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation is specified in the DP, the turn should be commenced at the higher altitude. If a turn is specified at a fix, the turn must be made at that fix. Fixes may have minimum and/or maximum crossing altitudes that must be adhered to prior to passing the fix. In rare instances, obstacles that exist on the extended runway centerline may make an “early turn” more desirable than proceeding straight ahead. In these cases, the published departure instructions will include the language “turn left(right) as soon as practicable.” These departures will also include a ceiling and visibility minimum of at least 300 and 1. Pilots encountering one of these DPs should preplan the climb out to gain altitude and begin the turn as quickly as possible within the bounds of safe operating practices and operating limitations. This type of departure procedure is being phased out.
“Practical” or “feasible” may exist in some existing departure text instead of “practicable.”
2. ODPs and SIDs assume normal aircraft performance, and that all engines are operating. Development of contingency procedures, required to cover the case of an engine failure or other emergency in flight that may occur after liftoff, is the responsibility of the operator. (More detailed information on this subject is available in Advisory Circular AC 120-91, Airport Obstacle Analysis, and in the “Departure Procedures” section of chapter 2 in the Instrument Procedures Handbook, FAA-H-8261-1.)
3. The 40:1 obstacle identification surface (OIS) begins at the departure end of runway (DER) and slopes upward at 152 FPNM until reaching the minimum IFR altitude or entering the en route structure. This assessment area is limited to 25 NM from the airport in nonmountainous areas and 46 NM in designated mountainous areas. Beyond this distance, the pilot is responsible for obstacle clearance if not operating on a published route, if below (having not reached) the MEA or MOCA of a published route, or an ATC assigned altitude. See FIG 5-2-1. (Ref 14 CFR 91.177 for further information on en route altitudes.)
ODPs are normally designed to terminate within these distance limitations, however, some ODPs will contain routes that may exceed 25/46 NM; these routes will ensure obstacle protection until reaching the end of the ODP.
Diverse Departure Obstacle Assessment to 25/46 NM
4. Obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the DER and penetrate the 40:1 OCS are referred to as “low, close-in obstacles.” The standard required obstacle clearance (ROC) of 48 feet per NM to clear these obstacles would require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per NM for a very short distance, only until the aircraft was 200 feet above the DER. To eliminate publishing an excessive climb gradient, the obstacle AGL/MSL height and location relative to the DER is noted in the “Take-off Minimums and (OBSTACLE) Departure Procedures” section of a given Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) booklet. The purpose of this note is to identify the obstacle(s) and alert the pilot to the height and location of the obstacle(s) so they can be avoided. This can be accomplished in a variety of ways, e.g., the pilot may be able to see the obstruction and maneuver around the obstacle(s) if necessary; early liftoff/climb performance may allow the aircraft to cross well above the obstacle(s); or if the obstacle(s) cannot be visually acquired during departure, preflight planning should take into account what turns or other maneuver may be necessary immediately after takeoff to avoid the obstruction(s).
5. Climb gradients greater than 200 FPNM are specified when required to support procedure design constraints, obstacle clearance, and/or airspace restrictions. Compliance with a climb gradient for these purposes is mandatory when the procedure is part of the ATC clearance, unless increased takeoff minimums are provided and weather conditions allow compliance with these minimums. Additionally, ATC required crossing restrictions may also require climb gradients greater than 200 FPNM. These climb gradients may be amended or canceled at ATC's discretion. Multiple ATC climb gradients are permitted. An ATC climb gradient will not be used on an ODP.
“Cross ALPHA intersection at or below 4000; maintain 6000.” The pilot climbs at least 200 FPNM to 6000. If 4000 is reached before ALPHA, the pilot levels off at 4000 until passing ALPHA; then immediately resumes at least 200 FPNM climb.
“TAKEOFF MINIMUMS: RWY 27, Standard with a minimum climb of 280' per NM to 2500, ATC climb of 310' per NM to 4000 ft.” A climb of at least 280 FPNM is required to 2500 and is mandatory when the departure procedure is included in the ATC clearance. ATC requires a climb gradient of 310 FPNM to 4000, however, this ATC climb gradient may be amended or canceled.
6. Climb gradients may be specified only to an altitude/fix, above which the normal gradient applies.
“Minimum climb 340 FPNM to ALPHA.” The pilot climbs at least 340 FPNM to ALPHA, then at least 200 FPNM to MIA.
7. Some DPs established solely for obstacle avoidance require a climb in visual conditions to cross the airport or an on-airport NAVAID in a specified direction, at or above a specified altitude. These procedures are called Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA).
“Climb in visual conditions so as to cross the McElory Airport southbound, at or above 6000, then climb via Keemmling radial zero three three to Keemmling VORTAC.”
c. Who is responsible for obstacle clearance? DPs are designed so that adherence to the procedure by the pilot will ensure obstacle protection. Additionally:
1. Obstacle clearance responsibility also rests with the pilot when he/she chooses to climb in visual conditions in lieu of flying a DP and/or depart under increased takeoff minima rather than fly the climb gradient. Standard takeoff minima are one statute mile for aircraft having two engines or less and one-half statute mile for aircraft having more than two engines. Specified ceiling and visibility minima (VCOA or increased takeoff minima) will allow visual avoidance of obstacles until the pilot enters the standard obstacle protection area. Obstacle avoidance is not guaranteed if the pilot maneuvers farther from the airport than the specified visibility minimum prior to reaching the specified altitude. DPs may also contain what are called Low Close in Obstacles. These obstacles are less than 200 feet above the departure end of runway elevation and within one NM of the runway end, and do not require increased takeoff minimums. These obstacles are identified on the SID chart or in the Take-off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section of the U. S. Terminal Procedure booklet. These obstacles are especially critical to aircraft that do not lift off until close to the departure end of the runway or which climb at the minimum rate. Pilots should also consider drift following lift-off to ensure sufficient clearance from these obstacles. That segment of the procedure that requires the pilot to see and avoid obstacles ends when the aircraft crosses the specified point at the required altitude. In all cases continued obstacle clearance is based on having climbed a minimum of 200 feet per nautical mile to the specified point and then continuing to climb at least 200 foot per nautical mile during the departure until reaching the minimum enroute altitude, unless specified otherwise.
2. ATC may assume responsibility for obstacle clearance by vectoring the aircraft prior to reaching the minimum vectoring altitude by using a Diverse Vector Area (DVA). The DVA has been assessed for departures which do not follow a specific ground track. ATC may also vector an aircraft off a previously assigned DP. In all cases, the 200 FPNM climb gradient is assumed and obstacle clearance is not provided by ATC until the controller begins to provide navigational guidance in the form of radar vectors.
When used by the controller during departure, the term “radar contact” should not be interpreted as relieving pilots of their responsibility to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance which may include flying the obstacle DP.
3. Pilots must preplan to determine if the aircraft can meet the climb gradient (expressed in feet per nautical mile) required by the departure procedure, and be aware that flying at a higher than anticipated ground speed increases the climb rate requirement in feet per minute. Higher than standard climb gradients are specified by a note on the departure procedure chart for graphic DPs, or in the Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section of the U.S. Terminal Procedures booklet for textual ODPs. The required climb gradient, or higher, must be maintained to the specified altitude or fix, then the standard climb gradient of 200 ft/NM can be resumed. A table for the conversion of climb gradient (feet per nautical mile) to climb rate (feet per minute), at a given ground speed, is included on page D1 of the U.S. Terminal Procedures booklets.
d. Where are DPs located? DPs will be listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures Section, Section C, of the Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs). If the DP is textual, it will be described in TPP Section C. SIDs and complex ODPs will be published graphically and named. The name will be listed by airport name and runway in Section C. Graphic ODPs will also have the term “(OBSTACLE)” printed in the charted procedure title, differentiating them from SIDs.
1. An ODP that has been developed solely for obstacle avoidance will be indicated with the symbol “T” on appropriate Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) charts and DP charts for that airport. The “T” symbol will continue to refer users to TPP Section C. In the case of a graphic ODP, the TPP Section C will only contain the name of the ODP. Since there may be both a textual and a graphic DP, Section C should still be checked for additional information. The nonstandard takeoff minimums and minimum climb gradients found in TPP Section C also apply to charted DPs and radar vector departures unless different minimums are specified on the charted DP. Takeoff minimums and departure procedures apply to all runways unless otherwise specified. New graphic DPs will have all the information printed on the graphic depiction. As a general rule, ATC will only assign an ODP from a nontowered airport when compliance with the ODP is necessary for aircraft to aircraft separation. Pilots may use the ODP to help ensure separation from terrain and obstacles.
1. Each pilot, prior to departing an airport on an IFR flight should:
(a) Consider the type of terrain and other obstacles on or in the vicinity of the departure airport;
(b) Determine whether an ODP is available;
(c) Determine if obstacle avoidance can be maintained visually or if the ODP should be flown; and
(d) Consider the effect of degraded climb performance and the actions to take in the event of an engine loss during the departure. Pilots should notify ATC as soon as possible of reduced climb capability in that circumstance.
Guidance concerning contingency procedures that address an engine failure on takeoff after V1 speed on a large or turbine-powered transport category airplane may be found in AC 120-91, Airport Obstacle Analysis.
2. After an aircraft is established on an SID and subsequently vectored or cleared off of the SID or SID transition, pilots must consider the SID canceled, unless the controller adds “expect to resume SID.” Aircraft may not be vectored off of an ODP until at or above the MVA/MIA, at which time the ODP is canceled.
3. Aircraft instructed to resume a SID that contains ATC altitude restrictions, shall be issued/reissued all applicable restrictions or shall be advised to comply with those restrictions.
4. If prior to or after takeoff an altitude restriction is issued by ATC, all previously issued “ATC" altitude restrictions are cancelled including those published on a SID.
5. ATC crossing altitude restrictions published on SIDs are identified on the chart with “(ATC)" following the altitude restriction. This will indicate to the pilot and the controller that this restriction is for ATC purposes and may be deleted by ATC. When an ATC crossing altitude has been established prior to the beginning of a transition route, a minimum altitude for obstruction clearance or other design constraints will also be published at the same fix adjacent/below the “(ATC)” altitude. The absence of “(ATC)” at a “minimum altitude” indicates the restriction is there to support obstacle clearance, airspace restrictions, Navaid reception, and/or other reason(s) that mandate compliance. These altitudes CANNOT be lowered or cancelled by ATC. A standalone “(ATC)” altitude restriction may also be located on a transition route; however, it must never be lower than the published Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA).
6. Altitude restrictions published on an ODP are necessary for obstacle clearance and/or design constraints. Compliance with these restrictions is mandatory and CANNOT be lowered or cancelled by ATC.
f. RNAV Departure Procedures
All public RNAV SIDs and graphic ODPs are RNAV 1. These procedures generally start with an initial RNAV or heading leg near the departure runway end. In addition, these procedures require system performance currently met by GPS or DME/DME/IRU RNAV systems that satisfy the criteria discussed in AC 90-100A, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area Navigation (RNAV) Operations. RNAV 1 procedures require the aircraft's total system error remain bounded by 1 NM for 95% of the total flight time.